Below is a 50-question multiple-choice exam with answers designed for a 40 Hour HAZWOPER (29 CFR 1910.120(e)) course. The questions cover core OSHA expected knowledge areas.
HAZWOPER Practice Test
50 Question Multiple Choice Exam
1. The primary purpose of HAZWOPER training is to:
A. Teach emergency firefighting
B. Protect workers from hazardous substance exposures
C. Replace HazCom training
D. Eliminate the need for PPE
Answer: B
2. Which OSHA regulation governs HAZWOPER training?
A. 29 CFR 1910.132
B. 29 CFR 1910.1450
C. 29 CFR 1910.120
D. 29 CFR 1926.21
Answer: C
3. Who is required to complete the 40-hour HAZWOPER course?
A. Office staff at industrial sites
B. General industry workers at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites
C. Firefighters only
D. Supervisors only
Answer: B
4. In addition to 40 hours of instruction, workers must receive:
A. A written test only
B. Annual refresher training
C. Three days of supervised, hands-on field experience
D. DOT hazmat certification
Answer: C
5. Which document outlines site-specific safety procedures?
A. SDS
B. HASP
C. ERP
D. SOP
Answer: B
6. The Site Safety and Health Supervisor (SSHS) must:
A. Be on call only
B. Have equivalent or greater training and experience
C. Be a third-party consultant
D. Only manage documentation
Answer: B
7. What is the primary purpose of an SDS?
A. Shipping requirements
B. Employee scheduling
C. Chemical hazard communication
D. Incident command
Answer: C
8. Which hazard class includes flammable liquids?
A. Class 2
B. Class 3
C. Class 6
D. Class 8
Answer: B
9. The “Hot Zone” is best described as:
A. The command area
B. The contamination reduction area
C. The area of highest contamination risk
D. A medical treatment area
Answer: C
10. Which level of PPE provides the highest level of skin and respiratory protection?
A. Level D
B. Level C
C. Level B
D. Level A
Answer: D
11. Level B PPE differs from Level A because it:
A. Uses APRs
B. Does not require gloves
C. Provides less skin protection
D. Is only for firefighters
Answer: C
12. Which atmosphere requires SCBA use?
A. Oxygen ≥ 19.5%
B. Known contaminants below PELs
C. Unknown or IDLH conditions
D. Outdoor environments
Answer: C
13. IDLH stands for:
A. Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health
B. Industrial Disposal Level Hazard
C. Integrated Dangerous Liquid Hazard
D. Initial Detection Level Hazard
Answer: A
14. The minimum safe oxygen level for workers is:
A. 16%
B. 18%
C. 19.5%
D. 21%
Answer: C
15. Air monitoring is used to:
A. Replace PPE
B. Identify and quantify airborne hazards
C. Approve site entry
D. Test ventilation systems
Answer: B
16. Which instrument detects oxygen levels?
A. PID
B. FID
C. O₂ meter
D. Colorimetric tube
Answer: C
17. A PID is commonly used to detect:
A. Radiation
B. Oxygen deficiency
C. Volatile organic compounds
D. Particulates
Answer: C
18. The purpose of decontamination is to:
A. Clean equipment for reuse
B. Reduce or eliminate contamination
C. Dispose of PPE
D. Sanitize the site
Answer: B
19. Decontamination lines should be located:
A. In the Hot Zone
B. In the Cold Zone
C. Between Hot and Cold Zones
D. At the site entrance
Answer: C
20. Which type of hazard includes corrosive chemicals?
A. Physical
B. Biological
C. Chemical
D. Ergonomic
Answer: C
21. The “hierarchy of controls” prioritizes:
A. PPE first
B. Administrative controls first
C. Engineering controls first
D. Training only
Answer: C
22. Which is an example of an engineering control?
A. Respirator use
B. Job rotation
C. Ventilation systems
D. Safety meetings
Answer: C
23. Heat stress is most commonly associated with:
A. Cold environments
B. Chemical burns
C. Wearing impermeable PPE
D. Noise exposure
Answer: C
24. Which is NOT a symptom of heat exhaustion?
A. Dizziness
B. Heavy sweating
C. Confusion
D. Shivering
Answer: D
25. The buddy system is used to:
A. Increase productivity
B. Monitor worker safety
C. Reduce training costs
D. Assign tasks
Answer: B
26. Which route of exposure includes chemical splashes to the eyes?
A. Inhalation
B. Ingestion
C. Absorption
D. Injection
Answer: C
27. Confined spaces at hazardous waste sites may present:
A. Noise hazards only
B. Oxygen-deficient atmospheres
C. No chemical hazards
D. Reduced PPE requirements
Answer: B
28. Biological hazards may include:
A. Asbestos only
B. Bacteria, viruses, and mold
C. Heavy metals
D. Solvents
Answer: B
29. Which document identifies emergency procedures?
A. HASP
B. ERP
C. SDS
D. JHA
Answer: B
30. The Incident Command System (ICS) is designed to:
A. Replace site supervisors
B. Manage emergency response operations
C. Enforce OSHA regulations
D. Conduct investigations
Answer: B
31. The first step in hazard recognition is to:
A. Select PPE
B. Review site history
C. Enter the Hot Zone
D. Start air monitoring
Answer: B
32. Which hazard is associated with heavy equipment?
A. Chemical only
B. Radiological
C. Physical
D. Biological
Answer: C
33. The primary purpose of medical surveillance is to:
A. Diagnose illness
B. Monitor worker health related to exposure
C. Replace air monitoring
D. Approve respirator use
Answer: B
34. Which training must be completed annually after initial HAZWOPER training?
A. 24-hour course
B. 8-hour refresher
C. DOT hazmat
D. Confined space
Answer: B
35. When should work be stopped immediately?
A. When productivity drops
B. When unsafe conditions are observed
C. When PPE is uncomfortable
D. During air monitoring
Answer: B
36. Which agency enforces worker safety regulations?
A. EPA
B. DOT
C. OSHA
D. NIOSH
Answer: C
37. Which exposure limit is legally enforceable?
A. TLV
B. REL
C. PEL
D. IDLH
Answer: C
38. A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) is used to:
A. Track injuries
B. Identify task-specific hazards
C. Replace HASPs
D. Determine PPE costs
Answer: B
39. Which hazard class includes toxic substances?
A. Class 1
B. Class 3
C. Class 6
D. Class 9
Answer: C
40. The Cold Zone is where:
A. Contamination occurs
B. Decontamination takes place
C. Support and command functions occur
D. PPE is removed
Answer: C
41. Which is an example of an administrative control?
A. Gloves
B. Ventilation
C. Work-rest cycles
D. SCBA
Answer: C
42. Chemical permeation refers to:
A. Visible chemical damage
B. Chemical movement through PPE material
C. Skin absorption
D. Equipment corrosion
Answer: B
43. Which condition increases the risk of slips and falls?
A. Noise
B. Wet surfaces
C. Radiation
D. Heat stress
Answer: B
44. The purpose of site control is to:
A. Restrict unauthorized access
B. Increase productivity
C. Replace PPE
D. Manage waste disposal
Answer: A
45. Which factor affects PPE selection?
A. Worker preference
B. Cost only
C. Chemical properties
D. Weather only
Answer: C
46. Which training level is required for supervisors at hazardous waste sites?
A. 24 hours
B. 40 hours only
C. 40 hours plus 8 hours of supervisor training
D. 8-hour refresher only
Answer: C
47. The main goal of hazard communication is to:
A. Label equipment
B. Inform workers of chemical hazards
C. Reduce PPE use
D. Improve recordkeeping
Answer: B
48. Which hazard includes ionizing radiation?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Radiological
D. Biological
Answer: C
49. Who has the authority to stop work at a HAZWOPER site?
A. OSHA only
B. Site Safety and Health Supervisor
C. Workers only
D. Emergency responders only
Answer: B
50. HAZWOPER training emphasizes which principle above all others?
A. Speed
B. Cost savings
C. Worker safety
D. Regulatory paperwork
Answer: C
Become HAZWOPER Certified Today!
Looking for OSHA-compliant HAZWOPER training that integrates seamlessly with site-specific hands-on field experience? OSHACode’s online HAZWOPER courses are designed to support employer-provided, site-specific training under 29 CFR 1910.120.
Sources
Emergency Response and Preparedness
OSHA HAZWOPER Hands-on Training Requirement
Medical Surveillance Requirements
U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
https://www.osha.gov/laws-regs/standardinterpretations/1992-08-27-1
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-resource-conservation-and-recovery-act
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