Below is a 50-question multiple-choice exam with answers designed for a 40 Hour HAZWOPER (29 CFR 1910.120(e)) course. The questions cover core OSHA expected knowledge areas.
HAZWOPER Practice Test: 50 Question Multiple Choice Exam
1. The primary purpose of HAZWOPER training is to:
A. Teach emergency firefighting
B. Protect workers from hazardous substance exposures
C. Replace HazCom training
D. Eliminate the need for PPE
Answer: B
2. Which OSHA regulation governs HAZWOPER training?
A. 29 CFR 1910.132
B. 29 CFR 1910.1450
C. 29 CFR 1910.120
D. 29 CFR 1926.21
Answer: C
3. Who is required to complete the 40-hour HAZWOPER course?
A. Office staff at industrial sites
B. General industry workers at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites
C. Firefighters only
D. Supervisors only
Answer: B
4. In addition to 40 hours of instruction, workers must receive:
A. A written test only
B. Annual refresher training
C. Three days of supervised, hands-on field experience
D. DOT hazmat certification
Answer: C
5. Which document outlines site-specific safety procedures?
A. SDS
B. HASP
C. ERP
D. SOP
Answer: B
6. The Site Safety and Health Supervisor (SSHS) must:
A. Be on call only
B. Have equivalent or greater training and experience
C. Be a third-party consultant
D. Only manage documentation
Answer: B
7. What is the primary purpose of an SDS?
A. Shipping requirements
B. Employee scheduling
C. Chemical hazard communication
D. Incident command
Answer: C
8. Which hazard class includes flammable liquids?
A. Class 2
B. Class 3
C. Class 6
D. Class 8
Answer: B
9. The “Hot Zone” is best described as:
A. The command area
B. The contamination reduction area
C. The area of highest contamination risk
D. A medical treatment area
Answer: C
10. Which level of PPE provides the highest level of skin and respiratory protection?
A. Level D
B. Level C
C. Level B
D. Level A
Answer: D
11. Level B PPE differs from Level A because it:
A. Uses APRs
B. Does not require gloves
C. Provides less skin protection
D. Is only for firefighters
Answer: C
12. Which atmosphere requires SCBA use?
A. Oxygen ≥ 19.5%
B. Known contaminants below PELs
C. Unknown or IDLH conditions
D. Outdoor environments
Answer: C
13. IDLH stands for:
A. Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health
B. Industrial Disposal Level Hazard
C. Integrated Dangerous Liquid Hazard
D. Initial Detection Level Hazard
Answer: A
14. The minimum safe oxygen level for workers is:
A. 16%
B. 18%
C. 19.5%
D. 21%
Answer: C
15. Air monitoring is used to:
A. Replace PPE
B. Identify and quantify airborne hazards
C. Approve site entry
D. Test ventilation systems
Answer: B
16. Which instrument detects oxygen levels?
A. PID
B. FID
C. O₂ meter
D. Colorimetric tube
Answer: C
17. A PID is commonly used to detect:
A. Radiation
B. Oxygen deficiency
C. Volatile organic compounds
D. Particulates
Answer: C
18. The purpose of decontamination is to:
A. Clean equipment for reuse
B. Reduce or eliminate contamination
C. Dispose of PPE
D. Sanitize the site
Answer: B
19. Decontamination lines should be located:
A. In the Hot Zone
B. In the Cold Zone
C. Between Hot and Cold Zones
D. At the site entrance
Answer: C
20. Which type of hazard includes corrosive chemicals?
A. Physical
B. Biological
C. Chemical
D. Ergonomic
Answer: C
21. The “hierarchy of controls” prioritizes:
A. PPE first
B. Administrative controls first
C. Engineering controls first
D. Training only
Answer: C
22. Which is an example of an engineering control?
A. Respirator use
B. Job rotation
C. Ventilation systems
D. Safety meetings
Answer: C
23. Heat stress is most commonly associated with:
A. Cold environments
B. Chemical burns
C. Wearing impermeable PPE
D. Noise exposure
Answer: C
24. Which is NOT a symptom of heat exhaustion?
A. Dizziness
B. Heavy sweating
C. Confusion
D. Shivering
Answer: D
25. The buddy system is used to:
A. Increase productivity
B. Monitor worker safety
C. Reduce training costs
D. Assign tasks
Answer: B
26. Which route of exposure includes chemical splashes to the eyes?
A. Inhalation
B. Ingestion
C. Absorption
D. Injection
Answer: C
27. Confined spaces at hazardous waste sites may present:
A. Noise hazards only
B. Oxygen-deficient atmospheres
C. No chemical hazards
D. Reduced PPE requirements
Answer: B
28. Biological hazards may include:
A. Asbestos only
B. Bacteria, viruses, and mold
C. Heavy metals
D. Solvents
Answer: B
29. Which document identifies emergency procedures?
A. HASP
B. ERP
C. SDS
D. JHA
Answer: B
30. The Incident Command System (ICS) is designed to:
A. Replace site supervisors
B. Manage emergency response operations
C. Enforce OSHA regulations
D. Conduct investigations
Answer: B
31. The first step in hazard recognition is to:
A. Select PPE
B. Review site history
C. Enter the Hot Zone
D. Start air monitoring
Answer: B
32. Which hazard is associated with heavy equipment?
A. Chemical only
B. Radiological
C. Physical
D. Biological
Answer: C
33. The primary purpose of medical surveillance is to:
A. Diagnose illness
B. Monitor worker health related to exposure
C. Replace air monitoring
D. Approve respirator use
Answer: B
34. Which training must be completed annually after initial HAZWOPER training?
A. 24-hour course
B. 8-hour refresher
C. DOT hazmat
D. Confined space
Answer: B
35. When should work be stopped immediately?
A. When productivity drops
B. When unsafe conditions are observed
C. When PPE is uncomfortable
D. During air monitoring
Answer: B
36. Which agency enforces worker safety regulations?
A. EPA
B. DOT
C. OSHA
D. NIOSH
Answer: C
37. Which exposure limit is legally enforceable?
A. TLV
B. REL
C. PEL
D. IDLH
Answer: C
38. A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) is used to:
A. Track injuries
B. Identify task-specific hazards
C. Replace HASPs
D. Determine PPE costs
Answer: B
39. Which hazard class includes toxic substances?
A. Class 1
B. Class 3
C. Class 6
D. Class 9
Answer: C
40. The Cold Zone is where:
A. Contamination occurs
B. Decontamination takes place
C. Support and command functions occur
D. PPE is removed
Answer: C
41. Which is an example of an administrative control?
A. Gloves
B. Ventilation
C. Work-rest cycles
D. SCBA
Answer: C
42. Chemical permeation refers to:
A. Visible chemical damage
B. Chemical movement through PPE material
C. Skin absorption
D. Equipment corrosion
Answer: B
43. Which condition increases the risk of slips and falls?
A. Noise
B. Wet surfaces
C. Radiation
D. Heat stress
Answer: B
44. The purpose of site control is to:
A. Restrict unauthorized access
B. Increase productivity
C. Replace PPE
D. Manage waste disposal
Answer: A
45. Which factor affects PPE selection?
A. Worker preference
B. Cost only
C. Chemical properties
D. Weather only
Answer: C
46. Which training level is required for supervisors at hazardous waste sites?
A. 24 hours
B. 40 hours only
C. 40 hours plus 8 hours of supervisor training
D. 8-hour refresher only
Answer: C
47. The main goal of hazard communication is to:
A. Label equipment
B. Inform workers of chemical hazards
C. Reduce PPE use
D. Improve recordkeeping
Answer: B
48. Which hazard includes ionizing radiation?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Radiological
D. Biological
Answer: C
49. Who has the authority to stop work at a HAZWOPER site?
A. OSHA only
B. Site Safety and Health Supervisor
C. Workers only
D. Emergency responders only
Answer: B
50. HAZWOPER training emphasizes which principle above all others?
A. Speed
B. Cost savings
C. Worker safety
D. Regulatory paperwork
Answer: C
Become HAZWOPER Certified Today!
Looking for OSHA-compliant HAZWOPER training that integrates seamlessly with site-specific hands-on field experience? OSHACode’s online HAZWOPER courses are designed to support employer-provided, site-specific training under 29 CFR 1910.120.
Sources
Emergency Response and Preparedness
OSHA HAZWOPER Hands-on Training Requirement
Medical Surveillance Requirements
U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
https://www.osha.gov/laws-regs/standardinterpretations/1992-08-27-1
U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-resource-conservation-and-recovery-act
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